Sunday, March 22, 2009

Questions on “The Napoleon of Notting Hill”

I just finished it, and there’s some things I find a little unclear.

1 What is the meaning of the dialogue at the end?
A. Is it an actual part of the story, or an allegorical interpretation of the
story that is not part of it?
B. Did the King really and truly do all he did as a joke, or is that just
something added to make the ending chapter’s message clearer?
C. Considering A+B, why did the king have a re-conversion when he saw Wayne in
the midst of the first battle?
D. What’s the theme of the ending dialogue? Is it true?
E. Is the King on the wrong side of the issue? Is Wayne on the wrong side?
Are they both wrong? Are they both right?

2. Did Notting Hill wage a just war the first time? (It didn’t the second
time.)

3. Who is to blame for Notting Hill becoming an empire?

4. Does the King represent Chesterton himself? What about Wayne?

5. Are we to admire or detest the non-Notting Hiller who brought the giant grey
army at the end of the first battle?

3 comments:

Hans Lundahl said...

1 A - both, B he was a joker ...

Old Fashioned Liberal said...

Sorry if I was unclear. B should read "Did the King really and truly do all he did JUST as a joke."

So, I suppose that Mr. Lundhal's answer to 1C would be "Because the king saw that his joke was the way things were supposed to be."

Hans Lundahl said...

my answer would be: because he saw the joke actually made sense to the heart as well

and my name is Lundahl, not "Lundhal", please!